Questions on Jurisdiction to Determine Jurisdiction

1) Assume that the property at issue in Durfee really was in Missouri. How can the Nebraska court be allowed to determine anything, including whether it has jurisdiction, if it doesn't have jurisdiction? Is it really the case that a court always has jurisdiction to determine its jurisdiction?

2) Why is a defendant prohibited from collaterally attacking a judgment for lack of personal jurisdiction if he appeared, but the issue was never litigated? Why does the same rule generally apply to subject matter jurisdiction? Isn't subject matter jurisdiction not waivable?

3) Why is the defendant allowed to collaterally attack a judgment for lack of personal jurisdiction when he defaulted? Why is the same rule generally applied to subject matter jurisdiction?

4) Why was collateral attack of subject matter jurisdiction allowed in Kalb v. Feuerstein?

5) What is the justification for the last-in-time rule?