Study Questions on Ch. IV of The Concept of Law

1) Why can't Austin explain the continuity of lawmaking power between Rex I and Rex II in terms of Rex I authorizing Rex II's rule?

2) Is it fair to say that for Austin a lawmaker stands at the apex of the legal system, but for Hart there is an authorization at the apex?

3) What does Hart mean by the "internal" aspect of rules on pp. 56-57?

4) Isn't Hart's theory simply one in which the Austinian sovereign is the officials or society as a whole? Aren't they the ones that are legally unlimited?

5) On p. 61 Hart says that the attitude toward the law of ordinary citizens may simply be a form of acquiescence in order to avoid sanctions. If so how can we explain how they are subject to a legal obligation? Don't we have the same problem that Austin has in explaining legal obligation?

6) Isn't it the case that there really is a group that is legally unlimited in the American legal system, namely the entity described in Article V?