2012 CivPro Q&A
Question on Twiqbal and R 11
Q. Would using 11(b)(3) and admitting lack of evidentiary
support get you in trouble with TwIqbal?
A.
I love this question, because it shows how Twiqbal
(despite itself being an interpretation of 8(a)) is in tension with the
Federal
Rules. I agree that there is a problem under Twiqbal with a conclusory
allegation of X (e.g. an agreement) even if the P has
"proto-evidence" that would allow him to reasonably believe that
evidence of X is likely to arise in discovery. An example is
Sierocinski, where
the fact that the cap blew up is (I think) proto-evidence - making it
reasonable to think that evidence of negligence is likely to arise
during
discovery. The fact that Sierocinski (or his lawyer) satisfied R 11 in
this way may not mean he has enough to satisfy Twiqbal concerning the
allegation of
negligence. That shows something is going wrong with Twiqbal.
Question on R 11
Q. How would you avoid rule 11 sanctions if you end up not
finding anything in discovery? You can't SJ yourself so would you just try to
settle?
A. This is a good point. Of course you can
reasonably
believed that evidentiary support will arise in discovery and nevertheless not get
any, just
as I can reasonably believe it will rain even though it ends up staying
dry.
But I take it your question is what happens at the point you realize after discovery that
you have
no evidence. Although your absence of evidence does not mean you
violated R 11
when you drafted and signed the complaint (provided that you
specifically stated that the factual allegation, although lacking
evidentiary support, "will likely have evidentiary support after a reasonable opportunity for further
investigation or discovery" and it was reasonable for you to believe this) the question is your current advocacy of the
complaint. I agree that this advocacy now looks like a violation of R 11,
suggesting that you must voluntarily dismiss your case or quickly settle.
Question about sua sponte R 11 motions
Q. I asked if it was possible, even after the 21 day
grace period in Rule 11(c)(2) (enacted in 1993), for someone who violated Rule 11 to be
sanctioned by the judge sua sponte. I
think this might work, if I understand the Rules correctly. Rule 11(c)(2) says that a "motion for
sanctions" cannot be filed with the court if the challenged paper is
withdrawn or appropriately corrected within 21 days after the offender has been
served with a motion for sanctions. But
this rule doesn't address the judge. If
I understand correctly, he could issue an order to the attorney to show cause
why he has not violated Rule 11. Rule
11(c)(2) doesn't explicitly include a grace period under these circumstances,
so it seems to me that the challenged attorney could be sanctioned, even if he
does happen to amend or withdraw his paper within 21 days.
This grace period only seems to apply to a motion served
to the offender, not to an order made by the judge sua sponte. I would be very interested to learn if this
is true!
A.
You are correct. The language of the rule clearly suggests this and I
have found a federal court of appeals making a statement to that
effect. Hunter v. Earthgrains Co. Bakery
281 F.3d 144, 151 (4th Cir.
2002). What that means is that if a court brings up R 11 sua sponte,
you cannot avoid sanctions by curing the problem in 21 days.
Question about delivering personally
Q. I had a follow-up to my in-class question today.
Suppose
a process server goes to D summer house on Martha's Vineyard. I
understand that if the server hands the summons and complaint to D
himself, it satisfies R (4)(e)(2)(a). However, D has his wife accept
the papers from the server while he stands directly behind her and
watches. Does this constitute improper service based on a plain text
reading of R (4)(e)(2)(b)? While the summer home doesn't come into play
when D is served personally, since he doesn't technically touch the
papers, does the summer home not serving as his "dwelling or usual
place of abode" apply and invalidate service? Or, since he was present
and saw the service, despite not actually touching the papers, was he
still served based on the (presumed) spirit of R (4)(e)(2)(a)?
A. It's about time I got to the bottom of this. All that is necessary is
that the papers be placed near the defendant so the defendant can see
them and the defendant is aware of the attempt to serve. See Wright
& Miller, Federal Practice and Procedure § 1095. E.g. Novak v.
World Bank, 703 F.2d 1305, 1310 n. 14 (D.C. Cir. 1983) (when the
process server, in attempting to serve the defendant, allows the
documents to fall to the defendant's feet and returns shortly
thereafter to find the documents no longer lying on the ground, service
is sufficient.). If the defendant doesn't know there is an attempt to
serve, service is insufficient. Modern Elec. Corp. v. Walsh, 197 F.R.D.
196 (D.D.C. 2000). Even leaving the papers at the door can satisfy the
requirement of serving personally if the defendant knows service is
being attempted and the server observes the defendant subsequently
taking the papers inside. Williams v. Harris, 1988 WL 78849 (D.D.C.
1988).
Question about standard of proof for R 11
Q. In regards to Rule 11 sanctions, which party has the burden of proof?
A.
The movant (the person asking for R 11 sanctions) clearly has the
burden of proof. If D moved for Rule 11 sanctions and no one offered
any evidence one way or another about whether sanctions were
appropriate, sanctions should surely be denied. But what is the
standard of proof? Not much out there (surprisingly). When answering
the question in 2011 I found a case assuming the preponderance
standard. One case that punted the question is Lucas v. Spellings, 408
F.Supp.2d 8 (D.D.C. 2006) (both standards satisfied). I now have found
a case saying that contempt sanctions require clear and convincing
evidence, In re Zilog, Inc., 450 F.3d 996, 1007 (9th Cir.2006), and one
that suggests that this applies to R 11 too. Fun-Damental Too, Ltd. v.
Gemmy Industries Corp., Not Reported in F.Supp., 1996 WL 724734
(S.D.N.Y.,1996).
Question about Mottley
Q. What is the following passage from Mottley about?
"The
only way in which it might be claimed that a Federal question was
presented would be in the complainant's statement of what the defense
of defendants would be, and complainant's answer to such defense. Under
these circumstances the case is brought within the rule laid down in
Tennessee v. Union & Planters' Bank, supra. That case has been
cited and approved many times since."
A. In the review session I
suggested that it might be about declaratory judgments: The Mottleys
cannot circumvent the well-pleaded complaint rule by asking for a
declaratory judgment about whether the federal statute preempted their
contract rights. In determining when a declaratory judgment action has
SMJ under 1331, you imagine the complaint redrafted such that it asks
for concrete relief and then apply the well-pleaded complaint
rule.
Although my point about declaratory
judgments is correct, that is not what the passage is about. It is not
speaking of a declaratory judgment, but rather of a complaint asking
for concrete relief under state law that adds language about what the
defendant's federal defense would be and what the plaintiff's response
to that defense is. Presumably the Mottley complaint didn't do that.
The point is that even if it had, there would still be no SMJ under
1331. That is what the Union & Planters' Bank case says (it
basically announces the well-pleaded complaint rule, which was not new
to Mottley) - although the Union & Planters' Bank case also goes
beyond that to say that federal defenses mentioned by the defendant in
state court do not allow for removal to federal court.
Comment about Baker
Q. I don't believe that refusing diversity jurisdiction to Baker would
stray from the intended purpose of diversity jurisdiction (at least with regard
to future cases). Let's assume arguendo that we do NOT grant diversity
jurisdiction to someone who very obviously changes domicile for the sole
purpose of establishing diversity jurisdiction (i.e. Baker).
It is probably safe to assume that, given prior knowledge that the
courts would not allow this type of "manufacturing diversity
jurisdiction," Baker would never have changed his domicile. Thus, knowing
that they could not succeed in manufacturing diversity jurisdiction in this
manner, future parties would have no reason to bother changing domiciles (at
least for the purposes of establishing diversity). As a result, the number of
parties that would face judicial discrimination based on their "betrayal
by moving to another state for the purposes of establishing diversity"
would be extremely small, if any.
A.
I agree. Your point can be put this way: Baker was, in effect,
manufacturing state court prejudice (or rather Illinois state court
prejudice - he was reducing Oklahoma state court prejudice). A
provision meant to protect against prejudice is poorly served when it
motivates people to create the very thing it is supposed to protect
against. To deter them, they should be forced to suffer the prejudice
they created. There are similar ideas at play in other areas of the
law. An example is assumption of risk in tort: Roughly, if I
voluntarily put myself in the risky situation, I should not be
compensated if that risk materializes.
Questions about Collateral Attacks
Q. I had a question on special appearance and subsequent collateral
attack of PJ. Would it be possible to appear specially to contest PJ,
lose, decide to default the judgment, and the collaterally attack on PJ
grounds and have the judgment vacated? So, using McGee, could D have
appeared specially in CA and contested CA's PJ, and lost. Having lost,
D believes TX courts will have a different view of CA's PJ, and decide
to default (perhaps realizing the substantive case is a loser for
them), and pin their hopes on TX courts accepting D's collateral
attack. It seems like there would be some Full Faith and Credit issues,
but theoretically, vacating normally in TX contradicts CA's ruling in
the same way. Thanks for your time.
A. This would not work. The determination by the CA ct that it had PJ
would be binding upon the TX ct, so no collateral attack would be
possible. More precisely under the Full Faith and Credit Clause, the TX
ct would have to give the CA ct's decision the same preclusive effect
it would have under CA law. If CA courts would treat the determination
as having issue preclusive effect (which they surely would) the TX
could would have to too.
One side point. A collateral attack on the CA judgment, is successful,
would not vacate it. There would simply be a determination that the CA
judgment was not binding. Vacating the judgment could only be done by
the CA court that issued it.
Follow up Q.
Since the judgment doesn't get vacated under collateral attack, P could
take a defaulted judgment found to have lacked PJ in another state, and
bring it to a third state and still recover? So, P gets a defaulted
judgment in CA, and takes it to TX to collect. D successfully
collaterally attacks, and gets the judgment set aside (is that the
correct verbiage?). Still, P could take the judgment to NM (assuming D
had assets worth collecting in that jurisdiction), and hope to collect?
The NM court could hold that the CA court did have PJ even after the TX
court held it did not?
A.
No, bc the NM ct would be issue precluded from relitigating the TX ct's determination that the CA ct lacked PJ.
Question about Aggregation
Q. I have another question for you regarding aggregation and jury
separation based on confusion. If P is aggregating to get into federal
court, does it matter who moves to separate questions based on
confusion? I can understand why D might move to separate for confusion
(maybe you really did batter P, but you didn't breach the contract, and
hearing about the battery would be prejudicial), but can P? It seems
incredibly unfair, and against the spirit of the amount in controversy
minimum to allow P to pool his complaints together long enough to get
into federal court, and then immediately split them again based on
confusion, essentially giving him two trials under the amount in
controversy minimum.
A. I can't find anything on the matter in Wright & Miller, Federal
Practice and Procedure, but my gut tells me that even the P could ask
for separate trials - after all, the problem of prejudice in state
court is not really different if there are two trials rather than one.
Follow up Q.
I know I said it in my first email, but that just seems to entirely
undermine the point of having an amount in controversy minimum. In
essence, P is really getting two federal trials when he would normally
be barred from bringing either action in federal court.
A. I take your point - one way of putting things is that separate
trials brought originally as separate lawsuits would not have made it
into federal court. But no one said the rules on aggregation are
logical.